1. The generic name of a medication is the actual name of the medication and never changes, although the medication may be made by many different manufacturers.
A. True B. False2. Traditional antipsychotics include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fluphenazine B. Loxapine C. Thloridazine D. Lloperidone3. The FDA has recently approved low doses of risperadal and abilify to treat anxiety.
A. True B. False4. Each of the following is a true statement about the use of novel or a typical antipsychotics EXCEPT:
A. They are effective in treatment-resistant schizophrenia but may also be used with severe depression or other psychiatric illness B. They are less likely than traditional antipsychotics to produce serious side effects C. Approximately 4 to 5 percent of people who take clozapine develop a condition in which their white blood cell count drops drastically D. There is some evidence that use of atypical antipsychotics may lead to the development of diabetes mellitus5. Tardive Dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary movements of the face and limbs, is most often seen in men.
A. True B. False6. The potential for abuse for antipsychotics as a class is relatively low.
A. True B. False7. For pregnant women, tapering and discontinuation of antipsychotics medication _________________ before delivery is generally advised.
A. 3 days to 1 week B. 10 days to 2 weeks C. 18 days to 3 weeks D. 20 days to 4 weeks8. Research has found that abusers of antiparkinsonians used these medications "to get high, to increase pleasure, to decrease depression, to increase energy, and to relax."
A. True B. False9. Lithium products include Eskallth, Eskallth CR, and:
A. Lithobid B. Lamictal C. Saphris D. Gabitril10. Which of the following is NOT one of the positive treatment responses attributed to antimanic medications?
A. Decreased hyperactivity B. Improved sleep and concentration C. Less illogical thought D. Fewer incidences of light-headedness and dizziness11. Dosage for antimanic medications is determined by the active amount of medication found in the person's blood after taking the medication and by his or her response to the medication.
A. True B. False12. The most common side effects for lithium products are diarrhea, rash or skin changes, and fatigue.
A. True B. False13. The anticonvulsant, __________________ may cause mood changes, especially depression and anger.
A. Gabepentin B. Topiramate C. Levetiracetam D. Oxcarbazepine14. Abrupt discontinuation of anticonvulsants may result in seizures, so slow tapering off periods of two to four weeks are generally recommended.
A. True B. False15. Blood tests for medication levels need to be checked every 3 to 4 months.
A. True B. False16. Antidepressants are the first line medications for certain anxiety disorders such as panic disorders, social phobia, and obsessive-compulsive disorders.
A. True B. False17. Antidepressant medication treatment for a single episode of major depression should be continued for _________ before discontinuing.
A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 18 months D. 2 years18. Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that has more effect on norepinephrine and dopamine levels than on serotonin levels in the brain.
A. True B. False19. Potential side effects for tricyclics and quatracyclics include:
A. Allergic reactions B. Change in appetite C. Confusion D. Shakiness20. The potential for a fatal outcome from an overdose with the SSRIs is much less than with other classes of antidepressants.
A. True B. False21. People taking MAO inhibitors must avoid all foods with high levels of tryptophan or tyramine as well as high levels of caffeine.
A. True B. False22. Using tricyclic medications is safer for a pregnant mother and the fetus than using SSRIs.
A. True B. False23. Each of the following correctly describes the use of benzodiazepines EXCEPT:
A. Positive treatment response to benzodiazpines occurs rapidly, within days B. Tiagabine is a benzodiazepine that is occasionally prescribed for performance anxiety C. Most physicians only use them for a short time as alcohol withdrawal medicines, or as sedatives in acute psychotic or manic episodes. D. Benzodiazepines are cross tolerant with alcohol and have a market as street drugs24. Buspirone is an antihistamine that uses the drowsiness side effect of the antihistamine group to calm and relax.
A. True B. False25. Gabapentin and pregabalin have been used to treat anxiety, especially in those persons with a substance use disorder history and for whom antidepressants have been effective.
A. True B. False26. People taking benzodiazepines for longer than _________ may develop physical tolerance to the medication.
A. 2 to 6 weeks B. 4 to 8 weeks C. 6 to 10 weeks D. 8 to 12 weeks27. Between 6 and 10 percent of people in the United States take a form of antianxiety medication at least once each year.
A. True B. False28. Risk factors related to developing dependency or anxiety medications include:
A. Approximately 4% of persons who do not have a current substance abuse problem or a history of substance will become dependent on antianxiety medications B. People with a prior history of substance abuse or dependence who are in recovery are at high risk of becoming dependent on antianxiety medications C. Some studies indicate there is a moderately higher risk for alcohol dependent persons to become dependent on antianxiety medications. D. None of the above29. Current knowledge suggests that in general short term use of benzodiazepines does not pose as much risk of producing a deformed baby compared to anticonvulsants.
A. True B. False30. Bupropion is an FDA approved non-stimulant medication used to treat AD/HD.
A. True B. False31. The most common side effects of stimulant medications are sleeplessness, loss of appetite and:
A. Nervousness B. Excitability C. Irritability D. Increased Pulse Rate32. People with AD/HD or narcolepsy rarely abuse or become dependent on stimulant medications unless they have other problems with substances.
A. True B. False33. Psychiatric symptoms including paranoid delusions, thought disorders, and hallucinations have been reported when stimulants are used for long periods or taken at high dosages.
A. True B. False34. Combination medications that contain an opioid or narcotic along with an opioid antagonist may be used to relieve pain but also prevent opioid abuse.
A. True B. False35. Opiates that are most frequently prescribed to manage chronic cancer pain include oxycodone, ___________ and methadone.
A. Tramadol B. Propoxyphene C. Percodan D. Fentanyl36. Overdose may increase pulse rate, and result in ________________ followed by coma or death.
A. Supressed breathing B. High blood pressure crisis C. Convulsions D. Stroke37. Zalepion is is a non habit forming medication that works with melatonin pathways in the brain to induce sleep.
A. True B. False38. Breathing difficulty is a potential side effect of which hypnotic?
A. Restoril B. Seconal C. Valium D. Halcion39. Though usually only treated for __________, signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal go on for weeks or months.
A. 1 to 5 days B. 3 to 7 days C. 5 to 9 days D. 7 to 11 days40. Which of the following accurately describes medication use for alcohol relapse prevention?
A. The oldest medication used in alcohol relapse prevention is naltrexone B. Topiramate blocks the breakdown of alcohol, resulting in toxic acetaldehyde 28 levels in the body C. Outcome studies indicate that acamprosate is best at increasing complete abstinence from alcohol, or increasing the time before relapse. D. Clinical observation of persons taking disulfiram showed that those who also used alcohol seemed to drink less and reported that alcohol use affected them less41. Mild opioid withdrawal can be accomplished with clonidine, a medication for treatment of high blood pressure.
A. True B. False42. Nortripyline is a recently FDA-approved smoking cessation medication and the first in its class that specifically targets the neurobiology of nicotine use disorder.
A. True B. False43. Some clinicians have used moderate doses of the older tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline or imipramine to treat withdrawal from marijuana, as they also have anticholinergic and sedating qualities but do not cause a high.
A. True B. False44. Disulfiram should never be given until the person has abstained from alcohol for at least:
A. 24 hours B. 20 hours C. 16 hours D. 12 hours45. Bupropion, which may help with anxiety and depression associated with tobacco withdrawal, should be started 14-21 days before a targeted smoking cessation date.
A. True B. False46. Specific combinations of first line medications shown to be effective for smoking cessation include each of the following EXCEPT:
A. The nicotine patch and bupropion SR B. Varenicline and the nicotine lozenge C. The nicotine patch and the inhaler D. The long-term nicotine patch and ad libitum NRT use47. Potential side effects for bupropion include dry mouth, insomnia, and:
A. Increased risk for seizure B. Body aches lasting 5-7 days C. Swelling of face, ankles, or hands D. Muscle twitching48. Although varenicline is well tolerated in most individuals, recent case reports describe exacerbations of existing psychiatric illness in clients who took the medication.
A. True B. False49. According to the The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) Committee on Drugs, women who are on methadone maintenance should not breastfeed their infants.
A. True B. False50. When providing information to a physician about a client's medication use or abuse, it is important to avoid making recomendations and to allow the physician to draw his or her own conclusions.
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